MCQs on Pulp & Periapical Infections – Operative Dentistry and Endodontics

Pulp and Periapical Infections Multiple Choice Questions

1. A twenty-one-year-old woman complains that regular, gentle brushing of her teeth is painful besides causing profuse bleeding. Oral examination reveals the loss of epithelium from the attached gingival of both arches. Which of the following dermatological problems is this patient most likely to have?
   A. Benign mucous membrane pemphigiod
   B. Chronic discoid lupus erythematosus
   C. Pemphigus
   D. Psoriasis
2. A flat, circumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as:
   A. Epulits
   B. Macule
   C. Nodule
   D. papule
3. True about caries, all except:
   A. Infectious and transmissible
   B. Not due to microorganisms
   C. Can develop in the absence of sucrose
   D. Microorganisms play the most essential role
4. Plaque microflora can-split carbohydrates. What does it means?
   A. Sacchrolytic
   B. Saprophytic
   C. Virulant
   D. Avirulant
5. Which of the following represents soluble polysaccharide found in dental plaque and is formed from the fructose moiety of sucrose?
   A. Levan
   B. Dextran
   C. Amlyopecting
   D. Hyaluronic acid
6. Progression of dental caries on pit and fissure occurs from:
   A. Apex of the pit and fissure
   B. Wide and of the pit and fissure
   C. Lateral surface of the pit and fissure
   D. Bottom of the pit and fissure
7. Which of the following is cariostatic?
   A. Selenium
   B. Magnesium
   C. Cadmium
   D. Molybdenum
   
8. Liquefaction foci of Miller is a histopathological observation in:
   A. Cemental caries
   B. Early enamel caries
   C. Advanced enamel caries
   D. Advanced dentinal caries
   
9. Streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose, known as:
   A. Levans
   B. Lectins
   C. Glucans
   D. Polyfructans
10. The gelatinous deposit adherent on the tooth surface is called as:
    A. Materia alba
    B. Plaque
    C. Calculus
    D. All of the above
11. Most demineralized zone in enamel caries:
    A. Translucent zone
    B. Body of lession
    C. Dark zone
    D. Surface zone
12. Most used selective medium for streptococcus mutans is:
    A. Mac conkey medium
    B. Mitus salivarius bacitracin agar
    C. Nutrient agar
    D. Tellurite medium
13. The cells most frequently found in a granuloma are:
    A. Mast cells
    B. Giant cells
    C. Lymphocytes
    D. Neutrophilis
14. Tiny linear or arc-shaped bodied, amorphous, brittle and eosinophilic in reaction found in association with some odontogenic cysts, are called:
    A. Civattle bodies
    B. Russell bodies
    C. Guarneri bodies
    D. rushton bodies
    
15. Low grade infection which leads to localized periosteal reaction is:
    A. Garre’s osteomyelitis
    B. Acute osteomyelitis
    C. Condensing osteitis
    D. Local alveolar osteitis
16. Cyst arising from rests of malassez is:
    A. Dental cyst
    B. Dentigerous cyst
    C. Radicular cyst
    D. Karato cyst
17. The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:
    A. Maxillary second molar
    B. Maxillary third molar
    C. Maxillary first molar
    D. Mandibular first molar
    
18. Three stages in progression of acute odontogenic infection are:
    A. Periapical osteitis, cellulitis, abscess
    B. Abscess, cellulitis, osteitis, Periapical
    C. cellulitis, Abscess, Periapical, osteitis
    D. Periapical osteitis, abscess, cellulitis,
19. The fascial spaces involved in ludwig’s angina are:
    A. Unilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces
    B. Bilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces
    C. Unilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces
    D. Bilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces
    
20. The chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw consists of:
    A. condensing osteitis
    B. Sclerotic cemental mass
    C. chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis
    D. All of the above
    
21. Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis:
    A. Maxilla
    B. zygoma
    C. palatine bone
    D. mandible
    
22. Chronic periostitis in children is known as:
    A. Cherubism
    B. Garre’s osteomyelitis
    C. Histiocytosis X
    D. Tuberculous osteomyelitis
23. A diffuse spreading inflammatory lesion is due to bacterial enzyme:
    A. Coagulase
    B. Hyaluronidase
    C. Peroxidase
    D. Bradykinin
24. Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma is:
    A. Radiographically
    B. Histologically
    C. Clinically
    D. None of the above
25. Which of the following differentiates between condensing osteitis and benign cementoblastoma?
    A. Condensing osteitis is associated with vital teeth where as cementoblastoma is associated with non-vital teeth
    B. In condensing osteitis radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in cementoblastoma it is not
    C. Cementoblastoma is associated with vital tooth where as condensing osteitis is associated with non-vital tooth
    D. In cementoblastoma radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in condensing osteitis it is not
    
26. Constant feature associated with a radicular cyst:
    A. An impacted tooth
    B. A missing both
    C. A non-vital tooth
    D. An anomalous tooth
27. The caries of enamel surface leads to accentuation of:
    A. Incremental lines of retzius
    B. Perikymata
    C. Imbrication lines of pickerill
    D. Wickham’s striae
28. Odontogenic epithelium responsible for the formation of dental cyst is:
    A. Cell rests of seirre
    B. Enamel organ
    C. Reduced enamel epithelium
    D. Cell rests of malassez
    
29. Which is not true of Ludwig’s angina?
    A. Usually arises from an infected molar
    B. involves submandibular space
    C. May need emergency tracheostomy
    D. None of the above
    
30. Reversible pulpitis change to irreversible pulpitis primarily because of:
    A. Vacular strangulation
    B. Reduced host resistance
    C. Invasion of microorganisms
    D. An increase in microbial virulence
31. Pain due to acute irreversible pulpitis is:
    A. Spontaneous
    B. Sharp- shock like
    C. Lasting for short time
    D. Continuous
32. A person experiences throbbing pain at night. It is due to:
    A. Acute Pulpal degeneration
    B. Acute periodontal abscess
    C. Chronic pulpitis
    D. Cellulitis
33. An asymptomatic tooth has deep has deep caries on occlusal surface. Radiograph shows radiopaque mass at apex of the tooth: this mass is most likely to be:
    A. Cementoma
    B. Condensing Osteitis
    C. Chronic apical periodontitis
    D. Acute apical periodontitis
34. Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?
    A. Gonococcus
    B. Enterococcus
    C. Streptococcus
    D. Staphylococcus
    
35. Periapical cyst is usually preceded by:
    A. Periapical granuloma
    B. Periodontal abscess
    C. Periapical abscess
    D. All of the above
36. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is:
    A. Necrotizing
    B. Suppurative lesion
    C. proliferation of a chronically inflamed pulp
    D. Also called as phoenix abscess
37. A tooth with a 3 month history of pain, which was worse when hot liquid were in mouth. After extraction, the tooth was split open. The pulp chamber was completely filled with pus. A few remnants of pulp tissue were found in apical end. The condition is:
    A. Acute partial pulpits
    B. Acute total pulpits
    C. Suppurative pulpitis
    D. Strangulation of pulp
38. Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:
    A. Due to excessive periosteal bone formation
    B. An extremely painful condition
    C. Due to low grade chronic infection
    D. A common sequel following sequestrectomy
39. Osteomyelitis begins as an inflammation of:
    A. Cortical bone
    B. Periosteum
    C. Medullary bone
    D. periosteum and inner cortex
40. The earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis is:
    A. Solitary or multiple small radiolucent areas
    B. Increased granular radioopacity
    C. Blurring of trabecular outlines
    D. Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches
41. The most common organism involved in a periapical abscess is:
    A. Strep. Pyogens
    B. Strep. viridans
    C. β hemolytic stretococci
    D. Non hemolytic stretococci
42. The main causative agent of Ludwig’s angina is:
    A. Anaerobic streptococci
    B. Aerobic streptococci
    C. Staphylococci
    D. Legionella infection
43. Which of the following periapical conditions is often associated with a vital pulp?
    A. Apical cyst
    B. Apical scar
    C. Condensing osteitis
    D. Chronic apical periodontitis
44. An acute apical abscess is usually a result of:
    A. Periodontal pocket
    B. Occlusal interference
    C. Necrotic pulp
    D. Chronic gingivitis
45. Organism involved in cellulitis is:
    A. Strept. mutans
    B. Strept. pyogenes
    C. Pneumococci
    D. klebsiella
46. Abscess formation is particularly characteristic of infections with which of the following microorganisms:
    A. Viruses
    B. Rickettsiae
    C. Streptococci
    D. Staphylococci
    
47. Garre’s chronic non suppurative sclerosing osteomyelitis is characterized clinically by:
    A. Endosteal bone formation
    B. Periosteal bone formation
    C. Resorption of medullary bone
    D. Resorption of cortical bone
48. The earliest response of pulpitis is:
    A. Cyst formation
    B. Calcification
    C. Hyalinization
    D. Formation of dental granuloma
49. Dental cyst:
    A. Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium
    B. Replaces the tooth to which it it attached
    C. Is frequently seen with a missing tooth on the X-ray
    D. Cystic lining of stratified squamous epithelium
    
50. Most common cyst in oral region is:
    A. Medial cyst
    B. Radicular cyst
    C. Follicular cyst
    D. Naso labial cyst
51. Phelogmon is a:
    A. Se*ually transmitted disease
    B. Type of cellulites
    C. Type of osteomyelitis
    D. Venereal disease
52. All of the following statements about the typical features of a periapical granuloma are true EXCEPT:
    A. It consists of proliferating granulation tissue
    B. It can form only if the periapical bone is resorbed
    C. It shows evidence of local antibody production
    D. It results from immunologically mediated tissue damage